CFP Exam · 23 min read 2026 Blueprint Verified

CFP Exam Estate Planning: 5 Tough Practice Questions

Rob Pfleghardt

10-year Price Waterhouse alumnus · Founder of VoraPrep · Former CPA (1987–2024) · with the VoraPrep Editorial Team

CFP Exam Estate Planning: 5 Tough Practice Questions

Key Takeaways

  • Spend your study time on active problem-solving with practice questions, not passive re-reading of textbooks.
  • Portability of a deceased spouse's unused estate tax exemption is not automatic; it requires a timely election on a federal estate tax return (Form 706).
  • A frequent exam trap is confusing the "step-up" in basis for inherited property with the "carryover" basis for gifted property.
  • The correct answer often hinges on identifying the most appropriate strategy for a client, not just a technically correct but suboptimal option.
  • A revocable living trust is a primary will substitute used to transfer assets and avoid the court-supervised probate process.

Mastering the mechanics of trusts and taxes is not enough to pass the Estate Planning section. The exam tests your judgment on when and why to use each tool, a skill that pure memorization actively undermines.

Quick answer

Free CFP Estate Planning practice questions are the best tool for mastering the judgment-based application of complex rules for the 2026 exam. They expose common traps related to trusts, basis, and portability, training you to think like an examiner and select the optimal client solution under pressure.

Key facts

  • Governing Body: Certified Financial Planner Board of Standards (CFP Board)
  • Exam Format: 170 multiple-choice questions, including stand-alone items and case studies.
  • Estate Planning Weight: 10-17% of the total exam score.
  • Annual Gift Exclusion: $18,000 for 2024. The exam will always provide the specific amount for the year in question.
  • Estate & Gift Tax Exemption: $13,610,000 for 2024. This figure is indexed for inflation; the exam will provide the applicable number.
  • Recent Pass Rate: The CFP Board reports the pass rate for the March 2024 exam administration was 65% (CFP Board).

Why Are Practice Questions Essential for CFP Estate Planning?

Practice questions are the most effective tool for preparing for the Estate Planning section. While reading textbooks builds foundational knowledge, only active problem-solving conditions you to apply that knowledge under exam pressure. The entire exam is a test of application, not just recall.

A study plan built around practice questions delivers four key advantages:

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  • It Forces Active Learning: Rereading notes is passive. Answering a question forces your brain to retrieve information, analyze a unique client scenario, and make a choice. This process builds far more durable knowledge than simply reviewing material.
  • It Exposes Your True Weaknesses: You might feel confident about trusts until a question about a Qualified Terminable Interest Property (QTIP) trust stumps you. Practice questions provide immediate, unbiased feedback on exactly which concepts you haven't mastered. VoraPrep's adaptive learning engine automates this, saving you hours by focusing on your specific weak areas.
  • It Teaches the "CFP Board Way": The exam has a distinct style. Questions are often layered with extraneous details and cleverly worded distractors. The only way to get fluent in this style is to immerse yourself in it.
  • It Builds Mental Stamina: The CFP exam requires sustained focus over several hours. Simulating this with timed practice question sets builds the endurance needed to perform at your best from the first question to the last.

If you're serious about passing, practice questions must be the core of your study plan. They are the bridge between knowing the rules and earning your certification. Try VoraPrep's free CFP practice questions to see the difference for yourself.

10 Free CFP Estate Planning Practice Questions (With Explanations)

Here are ten practice questions designed to test your understanding of key Estate Planning concepts for the 2026 CFP exam. Focus on the process. Read the scenario, identify the core issue, eliminate the wrong answers, and articulate why the correct answer is the best choice.

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Question 1: Gross Estate Inclusion

Amelia, a single individual, established an irrevocable trust five years ago, naming her children as beneficiaries. She transferred $1,000,000 of stock in a controlled corporation into the trust. Amelia retained the right to remove and replace the independent trustee with another independent trustee. She also retained the right to vote the stock held within the trust, but not to receive income or principal. At the time of her death, the trust assets were valued at $1,800,000.

Which of the following amounts will be included in Amelia's gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?

A. $0
B. $1,000,000
C. $1,800,000
D. The appreciation of $800,000 only

> ⚠️ Exam trap: > Many candidates see "irrevocable trust" and immediately assume the assets are excluded from the grantor's estate. The exam frequently tests the exceptions to this general rule. Certain retained powers, even subtle ones, can pull the entire value of the trust back into the gross estate.

Explanation:

The core issue is whether Amelia retained any powers that would cause estate inclusion. The rules under Internal Revenue Code §2036 state that retaining the right to vote the shares of a controlled corporation is a retained interest. This power causes the full value of those shares to be included in the decedent's gross estate.

  • Option A ($0) is incorrect because the retained voting rights trigger inclusion.
  • Option B ($1,000,000) is incorrect because when assets are included, it is their fair market value at the date of death, not the initial value.
  • Option D ($800,000) is incorrect because the entire value of the asset is included, not just the appreciation.
Correct Answer: C. $1,800,000 Because Amelia retained the right to vote the stock, the entire fair market value of the trust assets at her death is included in her gross estate. The power to replace one independent trustee with another is generally not an inclusion trigger, but the voting right is definitive.

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Question 2: Gift Tax Annual Exclusion

In 2026, John and Mary, a married couple, want to make gifts to their three adult children: Alex, Beth, and Chris. The annual gift tax exclusion for 2026 is $19,000 per donee per donor. They decide to gift $38,000 to Alex, $20,000 to Beth, and $10,000 to Chris. Assuming they elect gift splitting and have not used any of their lifetime exclusion, what is the total taxable gift for John and Mary for 2026?

A. $0
B. $1,000
C. $2,000
D. $10,000

> 💡 Worked example: > This question tests your ability to apply the gift-splitting rules systematically. Don't just sum the numbers; analyze each gift individually. Remember, the exam will always provide the annual exclusion amount. > > ### Step 1: Determine the available annual exclusion per donee. > With gift splitting, John and Mary can combine their individual $19,000 exclusions. > Total exclusion per child = $19,000 (from John) + $19,000 (from Mary) = $38,000. > > ### Step 2: Apply the exclusion to each gift. > - Gift to Alex: $38,000. This is fully covered by the $38,000 combined annual exclusion. Taxable gift = $0. > - Gift to Beth: $20,000. This is fully covered by the $38,000 combined annual exclusion. Taxable gift = $0. > - Gift to Chris: $10,000. This is fully covered by the $38,000 combined annual exclusion. Taxable gift = $0. > > ### Step 3: Sum the taxable gifts. > Total taxable gift = $0 (for Alex) + $0 (for Beth) + $0 (for Chris) = $0.

Explanation:

The trap is to miscalculate the total exclusion or to forget that the exclusion is applied on a per-donee basis. With gift splitting, a married couple can give up to double the annual exclusion amount to any single individual without creating a taxable gift.

Correct Answer: A. $0 Since John and Mary elected gift splitting, they have a combined annual exclusion of $38,000 for each child. None of the gifts exceeded this amount, so there are no taxable gifts for 2026.

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Question 3: Basis of Inherited Property

Sarah inherited a piece of real estate from her grandmother, Eleanor, who passed away in March 2026. Eleanor originally purchased the property in 1990 for $100,000. At the time of Eleanor's death, the fair market value (FMV) of the property was $500,000. Sarah sold the property six months later for $520,000.

What is Sarah's capital gain on the sale of the inherited property?

A. $20,000
B. $420,000
C. $500,000
D. $520,000

> ⚠️ Exam trap: > The single biggest mistake here is applying the "carryover basis" rule, which is used for gifted property, to inherited property. The exam will almost always provide the decedent's original basis specifically to tempt you into making this error.

Explanation:

The rule for inherited property is a "step-up in basis" under IRC §1014. The heir's basis becomes the fair market value (FMV) of the asset on the date of the decedent's death. This erases any potential capital gain that had accrued during the decedent's lifetime. Additionally, all inherited property is automatically considered to have a long-term holding period.

Property TransferBasis to Recipient
Inheritance"Stepped-up" (or down) to Fair Market Value at date of death.
Gift"Carryover" basis (generally, the donor's original basis).
  • Sarah's basis is not Eleanor's original $100,000 purchase price.
  • Sarah's basis is the $500,000 FMV at Eleanor's death.
  • The gain is calculated as Sale Price - Basis.
  • Gain = $520,000 - $500,000 = $20,000.

Option B ($420,000) is the result of incorrectly using the carryover basis ($520,000 - $100,000).

Correct Answer: A. $20,000 Sarah's basis in the property is stepped-up to $500,000. Her capital gain is the sale price of $520,000 minus her new basis, resulting in a $20,000 long-term capital gain.

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Question 4: Durable Power of Attorney vs. Springing Power

Which of the following statements accurately describes a key difference between a Durable Power of Attorney (DPOA) and a Springing Power of Attorney?

A. A DPOA is effective immediately upon signing, while a Springing POA becomes effective upon a specified event or condition.
B. A DPOA is only for financial matters, whereas a Springing POA can cover healthcare decisions.
C. A DPOA terminates upon the principal's incapacity, while a Springing POA continues to be effective.
D. A Springing POA is irrevocable, while a DPOA can be revoked by the principal at any time.

> ✅ Tip: > The key word is "Durable." A general power of attorney terminates upon the principal's incapacity. A durable power of attorney survives incapacity. A springing power is a type of durable power that only becomes active upon a future event, typically incapacity.

Explanation:

This question tests your understanding of the activation trigger for different types of POAs.

FeatureDurable Power of Attorney (DPOA)Springing Power of Attorney
Effective DateImmediately upon signing (default).Upon a specified trigger event (e.g., incapacity).
Primary Use CaseImmediate authority for a trusted agent.Contingency planning; power is dormant until needed.
ContinuityRemains effective through incapacity.Becomes effective because of incapacity.
RevocabilityRevocable by a competent principal.Revocable by a competent principal.
  • Option B is incorrect. Both are primarily for financial matters. Healthcare decisions require a separate document (Healthcare POA or proxy).
  • Option C is incorrect. This describes a non-durable POA. The purpose of both a DPOA and a Springing POA is to survive incapacity.
  • Option D is incorrect. Both are revocable by a competent principal.
Correct Answer: A. A DPOA is effective immediately upon signing, while a Springing POA becomes effective upon a specified event or condition. This is the fundamental difference in how and when the agent's authority begins.

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Question 5: Portability Election

Harold and Wilma are married. Harold passed away in 2026 with a taxable estate of $3,000,000. He had made no prior taxable gifts. Wilma is concerned about her future estate tax liability. The federal estate tax exemption for 2026 is $13,610,000 per individual.

What action should Wilma's financial planner recommend regarding Harold's unused exemption?

A. No action is necessary, as Harold's estate is below the exemption amount.
B. Wilma should disclaim a portion of Harold's estate to utilize his exemption.
C. Wilma should ensure a portability election is made on Harold's timely filed estate tax return (Form 706).
D. Wilma should establish a Bypass Trust to shield Harold's exemption.

> ⚠️ Exam trap: > The most dangerous wrong answer is A. It feels logical—no tax is due, so no action is needed. This is a classic "do-nothing" trap that ignores a massive planning opportunity. Failing to elect portability forfeits the deceased spouse's unused exemption forever.

Explanation:

"Portability" allows a surviving spouse to use the Deceased Spousal Unused Exclusion (DSUE) amount. To secure this benefit, the executor of the first spouse's estate must file a timely federal estate tax return (Form 706) and make the portability election. This is required even if no estate tax is due.

  • Harold's unused exemption = $13,610,000 (his exemption) - $3,000,000 (his estate) = $10,610,000.
  • By filing Form 706, Wilma can add this $10,610,000 DSUE amount to her own exemption.
Option D (Bypass Trust) is a valid estate planning strategy but is different from portability. A bypass trust uses the exemption by funding a trust, whereas portability simply transfers the unused exemption amount to the surviving spouse. You can find more detail in our CFP Estate Planning: Marital & Credit Shelter Planning — Complete Study Guide. Correct Answer: C. Wilma should ensure a portability election is made on Harold's timely filed estate tax return (Form 706). This is the direct and necessary action to preserve Harold's $10,610,000 unused exemption for Wilma's future use.

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Question 6: Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust (CRAT)

A client is considering establishing a Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust (CRAT). Which of the following statements about a CRAT is FALSE?

A. The annuity payment must be at least 5% but no more than 50% of the initial fair market value of the assets placed in the trust.
B. Additional contributions can be made to the trust after its inception.
C. The annuity payment is a fixed dollar amount, paid at least annually.
D. The remainder interest must be worth at least 10% of the initial fair market value of the assets transferred to the trust.

> ⚠️ Exam trap: > The exam frequently tests the subtle differences between a CRAT and a Charitable Remainder Unitrust (CRUT). The two most common points of confusion are the payment calculation and the ability to make additional contributions.

Explanation:

A CRAT is defined by its fixed annuity payment and its prohibition on additional contributions. The payment is fixed at the start, and because the calculation depends on the initial value, adding more assets later would make the fixed payment calculation unworkable.

FeatureCharitable Remainder Annuity Trust (CRAT)Charitable Remainder Unitrust (CRUT)
PaymentFixed dollar amount based on initial value.Fixed percentage of trust assets, revalued annually.
Additional ContributionsNot allowed.Allowed.
  • Statement A is true (5/50 rule).
  • Statement C is true (defines the "annuity" component).
  • Statement D is true (10% remainder rule).

Therefore, the false statement is the one concerning additional contributions.

Correct Answer: B. Additional contributions can be made to the trust after its inception. This statement is false. A CRAT cannot accept additional contributions after it is funded. This is a key distinction from a CRUT.

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Question 7: Section 2503(c) Trust for Minors

Mr. and Mrs. Chen want to make annual gifts to their three grandchildren, all under age 12, to fund their future education. They are concerned about gift tax implications and want to ensure the gifts qualify for the annual gift tax exclusion. They are considering a Section 2503(c) trust.

Which of the following provisions is a requirement for a trust to qualify as a Section 2503(c) trust?

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A. The income and principal must be distributed to the beneficiary at age 18.
B. The trustee must be an independent third party, not a parent or grandparent.
C. The trust property and income may be expended by or for the benefit of the donee before age 21.
D. The trust must terminate and distribute all remaining assets to the beneficiary at age 25.
Explanation:

The purpose of a Section 2503(c) trust is to make a gift to a minor qualify for the annual gift tax exclusion. To do so, it must meet specific requirements. The key age is 21, not 18 or 25.

The three core requirements are:

  1. The trustee must have discretion to expend property and income for the minor's benefit before age 21.
  2. Any unexpended property and income must pass to the donee when they turn 21.
  3. If the donee dies before 21, the assets must be payable to the donee's estate or as they appoint.
  • Option A is incorrect because the key age is 21, not 18.
  • Option B is incorrect; there is no requirement for an independent trustee.
  • Option D is incorrect because the beneficiary must have access at 21.
Correct Answer: C. The trust property and income may be expended by or for the benefit of the donee before age 21. This provision is a fundamental requirement of a Section 2503(c) trust, ensuring the trustee can use the funds for the minor's needs.

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Question 8: Generation-Skipping Transfer (GST) Tax

Emily establishes an irrevocable trust with $5,000,000 for the benefit of her granddaughter, Sarah. Emily's daughter, Beth (Sarah's mother), is still alive. The current GST tax exemption is $13,610,000.

Which of the following statements regarding the Generation-Skipping Transfer (GST) tax is most accurate?

A. This transfer is not subject to GST tax because Emily's daughter is still alive.
B. The entire $5,000,000 transfer will be subject to GST tax because Sarah is a skip person.
C. Emily can allocate her GST tax exemption to the trust to ensure no GST tax is due.
D. The GST tax rate applies only if the transfer exceeds the federal estate tax exemption.
Explanation:

This question tests the definition of a "skip person" and the application of the GST tax exemption. A skip person is generally someone two or more generations younger than the transferor. A grandchild (Sarah) is a skip person relative to a grandparent (Emily), even if the intervening generation (Beth) is alive. This transfer is a "direct skip."

  • Option A is a common misconception. The "predeceased parent rule" would only apply if Beth had died before the transfer was made. Since Beth is alive, Sarah is a skip person.
  • Option B is incorrect because it ignores the available GST tax exemption. The transfer is subject to the tax, but the exemption can be used to eliminate the liability.
  • Option D is incorrect. The GST tax is a separate tax system from the gift and estate tax, with its own exemption (though the amount is currently unified).
Correct Answer: C. Emily can allocate her GST tax exemption to the trust to ensure no GST tax is due. The transfer is a direct skip. Emily has a $13,610,000 GST tax exemption. She can allocate $5,000,000 of her exemption to this transfer on a timely filed gift tax return, which makes the transfer's inclusion ratio zero and results in no GST tax being due.

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Question 9: Marital Deduction

Mr. and Mrs. Johnson, both U.S. citizens, are planning their estates. Mr. Johnson has a net worth of $15,000,000, and Mrs. Johnson has a net worth of $5,000,000. Mr. Johnson wants to leave his entire estate to Mrs. Johnson at his death.

Assuming Mr. Johnson dies in 2026, which of the following statements about the federal estate tax implications of this plan is most accurate?

A. His entire $15,000,000 estate will be subject to federal estate tax.
B. His estate will receive an unlimited marital deduction, resulting in $0 federal estate tax at his death.
C. Only the amount exceeding the federal estate tax exemption will qualify for the marital deduction.
D. The marital deduction will reduce his estate tax, but some tax will still be due.
Explanation:

The unlimited marital deduction allows for the tax-free transfer of an unlimited amount of assets to a surviving spouse who is a U.S. citizen. This doesn't eliminate the estate tax, but rather defers it until the second spouse's death.

  • The Trap: Seeing a large estate ($15,000,000) that exceeds the individual exemption ($13,610,000) might make you jump to the conclusion that tax is due. However, the marital deduction is applied before the exemption.

Since Mr. Johnson is leaving his entire estate to his U.S. citizen spouse, the unlimited marital deduction applies to the full $15,000,000. This reduces his taxable estate to $0. If Mrs. Johnson were not a U.S. citizen, the assets would need to pass to a Qualified Domestic Trust (QDOT) to qualify for the marital deduction.

Correct Answer: B. His estate will receive an unlimited marital deduction, resulting in $0 federal estate tax at his death. The full value of the bequest qualifies for the marital deduction, deferring any potential estate tax until Mrs. Johnson's death.

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Question 10: Will Substitutes

Which of the following estate planning tools is considered a "will substitute" because it allows for the transfer of assets outside of the probate process?

A. A last will and testament
B. A durable power of attorney
C. A revocable living trust
D. A charitable lead trust
Explanation:

The core concept here is "probate avoidance." Probate is the court-supervised process of administering an estate. A will is the primary document used in probate. Will substitutes are legal tools that transfer ownership automatically at death, bypassing the probate court entirely.

  • A (Will): This is the opposite of a will substitute; it directs the probate process.
  • B (DPOA): This is a tool for managing affairs during incapacity; it terminates at death.
  • D (CLT): This is an irrevocable trust for charitable giving, not a primary tool for bypassing probate for personal assets.

A revocable living trust is the classic will substitute. Assets are titled in the name of the trust during life. At death, the successor trustee simply distributes them according to the trust's terms, with no court involvement.

Correct Answer: C. A revocable living trust Assets held in a revocable living trust avoid probate, making it a powerful will substitute.

--- That's 10 questions to sharpen your estate planning knowledge. For more targeted practice, including explanations written by our AI tutor, Vory, explore VoraPrep's full question bank.

What Makes a 'Good' CFP Estate Planning Practice Question?

A good practice question forces you to apply judgment, not just recall a definition. The questions you just worked through were designed to mirror the actual exam by focusing on four key elements.

  1. Tests Application, Not Just Rules: A weak question asks, "What is the 2026 annual gift tax exclusion?" A strong question gives you a family scenario with multiple gifts and asks you to calculate the taxable amount, forcing you to apply the exclusion rule in a realistic context.
  2. Includes Realistic Distractors: The wrong answers are not random numbers. They are the predictable results of common mistakes, like using a carryover basis for inherited property or forgetting to apply gift splitting. Recognizing these traps is a critical exam skill.
  3. Covers High-Impact Blueprint Topics: The questions focus on areas that are frequently tested and foundational to financial planning. These include transfer tax rules, trust mechanics, marital planning, and incapacity documents.
  4. Demands Critical Thinking: The best questions require you to synthesize multiple concepts. A scenario might involve an irrevocable trust, GST tax implications, and retained powers, forcing you to analyze the situation from multiple angles to arrive at the correct answer.

When you practice with questions built this way, you're conditioning your mind to think like a planner and an examiner.

How Should I Review Practice Questions to Maximize My Score?

You should spend as much time reviewing your answers as you do answering the questions. Simply completing a quiz and checking your score is a wasted opportunity. A strategic review process is what turns practice into progress.

Here’s a simple, effective framework:

Step 1: Triage Your Results

Group your answers into three categories:
  1. Correct and Confident: You knew the rule and applied it correctly.
  2. Correct but Guessed: You got it right, but you weren't sure why. This is a danger zone.
  3. Incorrect: You misunderstood the question or misapplied a rule.

Step 2: Perform an "Autopsy" on Every Mistake

For every incorrect answer, don't just read the right answer. Force yourself to articulate:
  • "What was the core concept being tested?" (e.g., Portability, Basis, GST Tax)
  • "Why was my answer wrong?" (e.g., "I used carryover basis instead of step-up basis.")
  • "Why was the correct answer right?" (e.g., "IRC §1014 mandates a step-up to FMV for inherited assets.")
  • "Why was the distractor I chose so tempting?" (e.g., "The question gave me the original basis, which made me think I was supposed to use it.")

Step 3: Solidify the "Guesses"

For the questions you guessed correctly, repeat the autopsy process. Getting it right for the wrong reason is just as dangerous as getting it wrong. Confirm the underlying logic so you can replicate your success with confidence on exam day.

Step 4: Keep an Error Log

Track your mistakes in a simple spreadsheet or notebook. Note the topic, the specific rule you missed, and a one-sentence summary of your "aha" moment from the autopsy. Review this log weekly. You'll quickly see patterns. This log becomes your personalized guide for targeted review. Our adaptive learning engine at VoraPrep does this automatically, saving you valuable time.

Where Can I Find More High-Quality Practice Questions?

These ten questions provide a solid foundation, but passing the CFP exam requires practicing with a much larger volume and variety of questions. At VoraPrep, we've developed a comprehensive learning platform designed to help you master the material and pass with confidence.

  • Massive Question Bank: Access over 6,900+ practice questions covering all 8 principal knowledge areas. Our question bank includes hundreds of scenarios specifically focused on Estate Planning, each with a detailed explanation.
  • Adaptive Learning Engine: Our platform identifies your weak spots in real-time. If you struggle with GST tax, VoraPrep automatically serves you more questions on that topic until you achieve mastery.
  • Vory, Your 24/7 AI Tutor: Don't understand an explanation? Need a concept broken down differently? Vory is available instantly to provide clear, personalized help.
  • Unbeatable Value: We provide elite-level prep without the elite price tag. Plans start at just $25/month or $199/year. You can see how we stack up against the competition on our comparison page.

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Frequently asked questions

What topics are covered in CFP Estate Planning?

CFP Estate Planning covers wills, trusts, federal gift and estate taxes, generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT), marital deduction and portability, charitable giving strategies, basis rules for property transfers, and incapacity planning documents like powers of attorney.

How many hours should I study for the CFP exam's Estate Planning section?

While the CFP Board suggests 250-300 hours for the entire exam, Estate Planning is one of the most complex sections. Plan to allocate a proportional amount of time, likely 30-40 hours, focusing heavily on application through practice questions rather than just passive reading.

What is the most common mistake candidates make in Estate Planning questions?

The most frequent error is misapplying a rule that seems correct on the surface. For example, confusing the rules for gifted property (carryover basis) with inherited property (step-up basis), or forgetting that portability of the DSUE amount requires filing a Form 706.

How does the annual gift tax exclusion work for married couples?

The annual gift tax exclusion allows an individual to give up to a certain amount to any number of people each year without gift tax consequences. For married couples, they can elect "gift splitting," allowing them to combine their exclusions and gift up to double that amount to a single person. The exam will always provide the specific exclusion amount for the year.

What is the difference between a CRAT and a CRUT?

A Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust (CRAT) pays a fixed dollar amount annually and does not allow additional contributions. A Charitable Remainder Unitrust (CRUT) pays a fixed percentage of the trust's value, which is re-determined annually, and it does allow for additional contributions.

Do I need to memorize specific IRC section numbers for the exam?

No, you do not need to memorize the numbers (e.g., "IRC §2036"). However, you absolutely must know the concepts associated with those sections, such as which retained interests will cause estate inclusion or the rules for a trust for a minor to qualify for the annual exclusion.

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About the Author: Rob Pfleghardt

Rob Pfleghardt is the founder of VoraPrep, a comprehensive exam prep platform for the CPA, CMA, EA, CIA, CISA, and CFP exams. A Virginia Tech graduate in Accounting and Finance, Rob began his career at Price Waterhouse, spending a decade in audit and IT consulting. After holding a CPA license for 37 years (1987–2024) and successfully scaling his own enterprise IT consultancy serving the Department of Defense, Rob launched VoraPrep. He now leverages his deep systems architecture background to build the adaptive training technology and curriculum that helps candidates pass their certification exams efficiently.

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