CFP Exam · 22 min read 2026 Blueprint Verified

Free CFP Risk Management and Insurance Planning Practice Questions (2026)

Rob Pfleghardt

10-year Price Waterhouse alumnus · Founder of VoraPrep · Former CPA (1987–2024) · with the VoraPrep Editorial Team

Free CFP Risk Management and Insurance Planning Practice Questions (2026)

Key Takeaways

  • Success in this domain hinges on applying rules to client scenarios, not just memorizing definitions.
  • The taxability of employer-paid group disability benefits is one of the most frequently tested and costly traps for unprepared candidates.
  • You must perform key calculations under pressure, including the coinsurance formula for property claims and the annuity exclusion ratio.
  • Distinguishing between Medicare Advantage (a replacement) and Medigap (a supplement) is a non-negotiable competency for advising older clients.
  • The Human Life Value (HLV) approach is a testable method for estimating life insurance needs that requires a precise present value calculation.
  • Every insurance recommendation must be justified by a client's specific goals and facts, aligning with the CFP Board's Practice Standards.

Risk Management and Insurance Planning accounts for 11% of your CFP exam score, roughly 19 questions. The biggest mistake candidates make is treating this like a vocabulary test, memorizing policy types. They then get blindsided by scenario questions that test the taxation of benefits—the real gatekeeper between a pass and a fail.

Quick answer

These free CFP Risk Management and Insurance Planning practice questions test your ability to apply complex rules for needs analysis, policy selection, and taxation to client scenarios. Passing requires moving beyond memorization to develop the critical judgment needed for the 2026 exam.

Key facts

  • Section Weighting: 11% of the CFP Exam (approx. 19 questions)
  • Official Body: Certified Financial Planner Board of Standards, Inc. (CFP Board)
  • Core Topics: Life, Disability, Long-Term Care, Health Insurance, Annuities, Property & Casualty
  • Exam Format: 170 multiple-choice questions (two 3-hour sections)
  • Primary Standard: CFP Board's Code of Ethics and Standards of Conduct
  • Overall Pass Rate: Historically 60-65%, with recent trends often in the high 50s to low 60s.

The CFP Board confirms that Risk Management and Insurance Planning constitutes 11% of the exam's 170 questions, making it a significant and mandatory area of mastery (CFP Board).

Why Are Practice Questions Essential for This Section?

Practice questions are the most effective tool for this section because they force you to move from passive knowledge to active application. Reading a textbook might teach you what a coinsurance clause is, but only a practice problem forces you to calculate the payout, cementing the formula in your mind. This active recall process creates far stronger neural pathways than simply re-reading notes.

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The CFP exam is a test of judgment. The pass rate proves that many smart, well-read candidates fail because they cannot apply their knowledge under pressure. Practice questions are your sparring sessions. They expose your weak spots—not just broad topics like "LTC insurance," but specific misunderstandings like "I always forget the 90-day certification requirement for tax-qualified LTC benefits."

Engaging with a robust question bank, like the 6,900+ questions in VoraPrep's adaptive QBank, systematically hardens your understanding. Our platform tracks your performance, identifies your specific weaknesses, and serves you more questions on those topics until they become strengths. It’s the most efficient way to turn study time into points on exam day.

10 Free Risk Management and Insurance Planning Practice Questions

Ready to test your judgment? These 10 questions are designed to feel like the real CFP exam. They require you to analyze a scenario, identify the core issue, and select the best course of action. Work through each one carefully before checking the explanation.

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Question 1: Disability Income Insurance Needs Analysis

Sarah, a 38-year-old marketing manager, earns $120,000 annually. She is married with two young children and currently has group long-term disability (LTD) insurance through her employer that covers 60% of her salary, up to a maximum of $5,000 per month, after a 90-day elimination period. The premiums for this group policy are paid by her employer. Sarah estimates her family's essential monthly expenses would be $6,500 if she were unable to work. Her husband earns $4,000 per month.

Considering Sarah's situation, what is her approximate additional monthly disability income need to cover essential expenses, and what tax implications should be discussed regarding the group policy's benefits?

A. $2,500 additional need; group benefits are generally tax-free.
B. $1,500 additional need; group benefits are generally taxable.
C. $2,500 additional need; group benefits are generally taxable.
D. $1,500 additional need; group benefits are generally tax-free.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C

This is a classic two-part question that tests both needs analysis and the tax rules for disability benefits. You must solve both parts correctly.

> ⚠️ Exam trap: > The most common mistake is focusing only on the numbers and ignoring the tax implications. Candidates see a $5,000/month benefit and think it's sufficient, or they miscalculate the "need" by ignoring the husband's income. The question is structured to catch those who don't read every detail.

  • Step 1: Calculate the family's income gap for essential expenses.
  • Essential monthly expenses: $6,500
  • Husband's monthly income: $4,000
  • Income gap to be covered by Sarah's disability benefits: $6,500 - $4,000 = $2,500. This is the "need" her disability income must satisfy.
  • Step 2: Determine the taxability of the group LTD benefits.
  • The problem states that Sarah's employer pays the premiums for the group policy.
  • Per IRS rules, when an employer pays the premium for disability insurance, any benefits received by the employee are considered taxable income.
  • This eliminates options A and D immediately.
  • Step 3: Combine the findings.
  • The income need from Sarah's benefits is $2,500 per month.
  • The benefits from her existing group policy are taxable.
  • This directly matches option C.

Why isn't her current $5,000 policy enough? While her gross benefit of $5,000 is more than the $2,500 need, the question asks for the need itself and the tax implication. The $2,500 is the target her benefits must hit after tax. A planner's advice would be to ensure her net benefit after taxes would be at least $2,500.

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Question 2: Human Life Value Approach

David, 30, earns $75,000 annually. He expects his income to grow at 3% per year for the next 35 years until retirement. His personal consumption, taxes, and life insurance premiums total $25,000 per year. If a discount rate of 6% is used, what is David's approximate human life value (HLV)?

A. $1,250,000
B. $1,076,500
C. $850,000
D. $700,000
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B

The Human Life Value (HLV) approach calculates the present value of an individual's future earnings that are dedicated to their dependents. This question requires a present value calculation of a growing ordinary annuity.

> 🧮 Formula: > The present value of a growing ordinary annuity is calculated as: > PV = PMT × [1 - ( (1+g) / (1+r) )^n] / (r - g) > Where: > PMT = First period's payment (annual contribution) > g = growth rate > r = discount rate > n = number of periods

  • Step 1: Calculate the annual contribution to dependents.
  • Annual income: $75,000
  • Less: Personal consumption/taxes/premiums: $25,000
  • Annual contribution (PMT): $50,000
  • Step 2: Identify the variables for the formula.
  • PMT = $50,000
  • g (growth rate) = 3% or 0.03
  • r (discount rate) = 6% or 0.06
  • n (number of years) = 35
  • Step 3: Calculate the present value.
  • PV = $50,000 × [1 - ( (1.03) / (1.06) )^35] / (0.06 - 0.03)
  • PV = $50,000 × [1 - (0.9717)^35] / (0.03)
  • PV = $50,000 × [1 - 0.3541] / (0.03)
  • PV = $50,000 × [0.6459] / (0.03)
  • PV = $50,000 × 21.53
  • PV = $1,076,500

This result matches option B. The calculation assumes payments occur at the end of each period (an ordinary annuity). Be aware that the exam could present a scenario implying an annuity due (payments at the beginning of the period), which would require a slightly different calculation.

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Question 3: Long-Term Care (LTC) Insurance Policy Triggers

For an individual to receive benefits from a tax-qualified long-term care insurance policy, which of the following conditions must be met?

I. Inability to perform at least two of six Activities of Daily Living (ADLs). II. A severe cognitive impairment requiring substantial supervision. III. A physician's certification that the condition is expected to last at least 90 days.

A. I or II only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. (I or II) and III
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D

This question tests your precise knowledge of the benefit requirements for a tax-qualified LTC policy under HIPAA. The distinction is critical.

  • I. Inability to perform at least two ADLs: This is a primary benefit trigger. The six ADLs are bathing, dressing, eating, continence, toileting, and transferring.
  • II. Severe cognitive impairment: This is the other primary benefit trigger, covering conditions like Alzheimer's that require supervision.
  • III. Physician's certification for 90 days: This is a statutory co-requisite. For a policy to be tax-qualified, the insured must be certified by a licensed health care practitioner as being chronically ill, meaning the condition is expected to last at least 90 days.

The core trigger is either the ADL failure (I) OR the cognitive impairment (II). However, for a tax-qualified policy to pay benefits, that condition must ALSO be certified as lasting at least 90 days (III). Therefore, you need one of the first two conditions and the third condition to be met.

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Question 4: Property and Casualty (P&C) Insurance - Coinsurance Clause

A commercial building has a replacement cost of $1,000,000. It is insured for $600,000 under a property insurance policy with an 80% coinsurance clause. A fire causes $200,000 in covered damages. Assuming no deductible, how much will the insurance company pay for this loss?

A. $200,000
B. $160,000
C. $150,000
D. $120,000
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C

This is a direct application of the coinsurance formula, a must-know calculation for the exam. The formula penalizes policyholders for underinsuring their property.

> 💡 Worked example: > The coinsurance formula determines the payout when a property is underinsured: > Payout = (Amount of Insurance Carried / Amount of Insurance Required) × Loss > The result is capped at the policy limit.

  • Step 1: Determine the required amount of insurance.
  • Replacement cost of the building: $1,000,000
  • Coinsurance percentage: 80%
  • Insurance Required = $1,000,000 × 0.80 = $800,000
  • Step 2: Determine the actual amount of insurance carried.
  • The policy limit is $600,000.
  • Step 3: Apply the coinsurance formula.
  • The insured carried $600,000 of the required $800,000.
  • Payout = ($600,000 / $800,000) × $200,000
  • Payout = (0.75) × $200,000 = $150,000

The insurance company will only pay $150,000 of the $200,000 loss. The tempting wrong answer is $160,000 (B), which comes from incorrectly multiplying the loss by the 80% coinsurance factor ($200,000 * 0.80). This is a classic distractor.

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Question 5: Health Savings Account (HSA) Eligibility

Which of the following individuals would be eligible to contribute to a Health Savings Account (HSA) in 2026? (Assume 2026 minimum deductibles are at least $1,700 for self-only and $3,400 for family coverage).

A. Mark, 66, who is enrolled in Medicare Part A.
B. Lisa, 40, covered by her employer's PPO plan with a $1,000 deductible.
C. David, 50, covered by a High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP) and also covered by his spouse's traditional HMO plan as a secondary payer.
D. Maria, 35, covered by an HDHP with a $2,000 individual deductible and has no other health coverage.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D

HSA eligibility has strict rules that are frequently tested. To be eligible, an individual must:

  1. Be covered by a qualified High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP).
  2. Not be covered by any other non-HDHP health plan (with limited exceptions).
  3. Not be enrolled in Medicare.
  4. Not be claimed as a dependent on someone else's tax return.

Let's evaluate the options:

  • A. Mark: He is enrolled in Medicare. This is an automatic disqualifier for HSA contributions.
  • B. Lisa: Her plan's deductible of $1,000 is below the minimum required for an HDHP. She is not eligible.
  • C. David: He is covered by another non-HDHP plan (his spouse's HMO). This is a disqualifier, even if it's secondary coverage.
  • D. Maria: She meets all the criteria. She is covered by an HDHP (the $2,000 deductible meets the minimum), she has no other disqualifying health coverage, and we assume she is not a dependent or on Medicare. She is eligible to contribute.

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Question 6: Life Insurance Policy Provisions - Automatic Premium Loan (APL)

Which statement about the Automatic Premium Loan (APL) provision in a whole life insurance policy is correct?

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A. It is a mandatory provision in all whole life policies.
B. It prevents an unintentional policy lapse by automatically borrowing from the cash value to pay an overdue premium.
C. It can only be used if the policy's cash value is greater than its death benefit.
D. It must be activated by the policyowner after each missed premium payment.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B

This question tests your understanding of a key life insurance policy provision.

  • A. Mandatory provision: This is incorrect. APL is an optional rider that the policyowner must elect. The standard non-forfeiture options (cash surrender, reduced paid-up, extended term) are mandatory, but APL is not.
  • B. Prevents unintentional lapse: This is the core purpose of the APL provision. If a premium is not paid by the end of the grace period, the insurer automatically creates a loan against the policy's cash value to pay the premium, keeping the policy in force.
  • C. Cash value greater than death benefit: This is impossible in a traditional whole life policy. The cash value can never exceed the death benefit.
  • D. Must be activated after each miss: This is incorrect. The provision is automatic. Once elected, it activates on its own whenever a premium is missed, as long as there is sufficient cash value to cover the loan.

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Question 7: Annuities - Exclusion Ratio Calculation

John, 68, purchases a non-qualified immediate annuity for $200,000. The annuity will pay him $1,500 per month for the rest of his life. According to the relevant IRS tables, his life expectancy is 20.0 years. What portion of his first year's payments is excluded from his gross income?

A. $18,000
B. $10,000
C. $8,000
D. $0
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B

For a non-qualified annuity, the portion of each payment that is a return of the original investment (the "cost basis") is excluded from income tax. This is calculated using the exclusion ratio.

  • Step 1: Calculate the total expected return.
  • Monthly payment: $1,500
  • Annual payments: $1,500 × 12 = $18,000
  • Life expectancy: 20 years
  • Expected Return = $18,000/year × 20 years = $360,000
  • Step 2: Calculate the exclusion ratio.
  • Exclusion Ratio = Investment in the Contract / Expected Return
  • Investment in the Contract (cost basis): $200,000
  • Exclusion Ratio = $200,000 / $360,000 = 0.5556 or 55.56%
  • Step 3: Calculate the excluded amount for the first year.
  • Total payments received in the first year: $18,000
  • Excluded portion = Total Annual Payments × Exclusion Ratio
  • Excluded portion = $18,000 × 0.5556 = $10,000

For the first year, $10,000 of the $18,000 received is a tax-free return of principal, and the remaining $8,000 is taxable ordinary income.

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Question 8: Medicare Coverage & Gaps

A 70-year-old client is enrolled in Original Medicare (Parts A and B). Which of the following statements accurately describes a key aspect of their coverage options?

A. Medicare Part B covers routine dental, vision, and hearing exams.
B. A Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan can be added to their Original Medicare to enhance benefits.
C. A Medigap policy is sold by private insurers and is designed to cover cost-sharing gaps like deductibles and coinsurance in Original Medicare.
D. Medicare Part D is automatically included with Medicare Part B at no additional premium.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C

Understanding the structure of Medicare is critical for advising retirees.

  • A. Part B coverage: Incorrect. Original Medicare (Part B) does not cover most routine dental, vision, or hearing services.
  • B. Adding Medicare Advantage: Incorrect. A client cannot "add" a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan to Original Medicare. They must choose one or the other. Enrolling in a Part C plan means you receive your Medicare benefits through that private plan, instead of through Original Medicare.
  • C. Medigap policy function: Correct. Medigap (or Medicare Supplement Insurance) policies are sold by private companies to fill the "gaps" in Original Medicare, such as the Part A deductible or the Part B 20% coinsurance. This is the precise function of a Medigap plan.
  • D. Part D inclusion: Incorrect. Medicare Part D (prescription drug coverage) is a standalone plan that must be enrolled in separately and requires a separate monthly premium.

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Question 9: Business Overhead Expense (BOE) Insurance

Dr. Emily Chen, a dentist, is the sole proprietor of her practice. If she becomes totally disabled, which of the following would be covered by a Business Overhead Expense (BOE) insurance policy?

A. Dr. Chen's lost profits.
B. Dr. Chen's personal salary or draw from the business.
C. The salary of a temporary dentist hired to treat patients during her disability.
D. The monthly lease payment for her office space.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D

BOE insurance is a specific type of disability policy with a narrow purpose: to cover the fixed, recurring operating expenses of a business if the owner is disabled.

  • A. Lost profits: Not covered. BOE covers expenses, not revenue or profit.
  • B. Owner's salary: Not covered. This is the most common misconception. The owner's own income must be covered by a separate individual disability income policy.
  • C. Salary of a replacement: Not covered by a base BOE policy. However, many policies offer a "substitute" or "locum tenens" rider that would cover this cost. Since the question asks what a BOE policy covers (implying the standard contract), this is incorrect. A planner should know to look for this rider.
  • D. Office lease payment: Correct. This is a classic example of a fixed overhead expense that continues whether the owner is working or not. Other examples include employee salaries, utilities, property taxes, and insurance premiums.

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Question 10: Viatical Settlement vs. Accelerated Death Benefit

Which of the following best describes a key difference between a viatical settlement and an accelerated death benefit (ADB) rider?

A. A viatical settlement involves the insurer paying a portion of the death benefit, while an ADB involves a third-party buyer.
B. An ADB is an option offered by the insurance company itself, while a viatical settlement involves selling the policy to an unrelated third party.
C. Viatical settlements are always fully taxable, whereas ADB payments are always tax-free.
D. ADBs are only available on term life policies, while viatical settlements are only for permanent policies.
View Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B

Both options allow a chronically or terminally ill individual to access life insurance death benefits while alive, but they operate through different mechanisms.

  • A. Reversed roles: This statement has the parties reversed. The ADB comes from the insurer; the viatical settlement involves a third-party buyer.
  • B. Correct distinction: This is the core difference. An Accelerated Death Benefit is a provision on your own policy, and you deal directly with your insurance company. A viatical settlement is a transaction where you sell your entire policy to a viatical settlement company (a third party) for a lump sum. That company becomes the new owner and collects the full death benefit.
  • C. Tax treatment: This is incorrect. Both qualified ADBs and qualified viatical settlements are generally received income tax-free if the insured is terminally ill (certified to die within 24 months) or chronically ill.
  • D. Policy types: This is incorrect. ADB riders can be found on both term and permanent policies. Viatical settlements are typically done with permanent policies but can be done with any policy a buyer is willing to purchase.

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Which Insurance Topics Are Most Difficult on the CFP Exam?

The hardest topics are consistently those requiring multi-step analysis or a deep understanding of nuanced rules, not just definitions. Based on our data from thousands of candidates, these are the primary struggle zones:

  1. Taxation of Benefits: You must know the tax treatment for disability benefits (who paid the premium?), life insurance proceeds (is there a transfer-for-value?), and annuity payments (exclusion ratio). The exam loves to test these rules within a client scenario.
  2. Government Program Nuances: The interaction between Medicare Parts A, B, C (Advantage), D, and Medigap policies is a minefield. Candidates often mix up what is a replacement versus a supplement.
  3. Complex Calculations: While the math isn't advanced, performing multi-step calculations like the HLV or the P&C coinsurance formula under time pressure is challenging. One missed step leads to a wrong answer that is conveniently listed as an option.
  4. Business Insurance Applications: Distinguishing between the specific purposes of Key Person, Buy-Sell funding, Business Overhead Expense, and individual disability insurance is critical. The exam will give you a business owner's problem and expect you to choose the correct tool for the job.

To help clarify the most confusing government program, here is a quick reference table for Medicare options.

FeatureOriginal Medicare (A & B)Medicare Advantage (Part C)Medigap (Supplement)Part D
What It IsFoundational hospital (A) and medical (B) coverage from the federal government.An alternative way to get A & B benefits through a private insurer. Bundles coverage.Private insurance that helps pay the "gaps" (deductibles, coinsurance) in Original Medicare.Standalone private plan for prescription drug coverage.
How It WorksYou can see any doctor/hospital that accepts Medicare.You must use the plan's network of doctors (HMO/PPO). Often includes drug coverage.You must have Original Medicare. It pays after Medicare pays its share.Can be added to Original Medicare or is often included in a Medicare Advantage plan.
Key Trade-offFreedom of choice, but has cost-sharing gaps and no out-of-pocket max.Lower premiums, out-of-pocket max, but restricted network and requires referrals.Higher premiums, but significantly reduced out-of-pocket costs for covered services.You must enroll and pay a separate premium.
Can you have both?N/ANo. You cannot have both Advantage and Medigap. It's one or the other.Yes. Medigap works with Original Medicare.Yes. You can add Part D to Original Medicare.

Mastering these areas requires more than flashcards. It requires working through dozens of scenario-based questions until the application of the rules becomes second nature. This is why our CFP practice exam questions are so effective; they allow for targeted practice in these exact high-difficulty areas.

What's the Best Way to Analyze a CFP Insurance Question?

The best way to approach a complex scenario question is to use a systematic process. Don't just scan for keywords. Break the question down like a planner.

Step 1: Identify the Core Risk

Before you look at the insurance products, what is the fundamental financial risk the client is facing? Is it premature death, loss of income due to disability, catastrophic healthcare costs, or a liability lawsuit? Naming the risk focuses your thinking.

Step 2: Quantify the Need

How large is the risk in dollar terms? This is where you apply needs analysis. For life insurance, it might be an income replacement need. For disability, it's the monthly income gap. For property, it's the replacement cost of the asset. The numbers in the question are there for a reason.

Step 3: Evaluate Existing Coverage

What solutions does the client already have in place? The question will often provide details on existing group policies or individual coverage. You must analyze this coverage for its adequacy, tax implications, and limitations (e.g., the cap on the group LTD benefit in Question 1).

Step 4: Select the Appropriate Tool

With a clear picture of the risk and the gap in coverage, now you can evaluate the answer choices. Which policy or strategy directly and efficiently solves the specific problem you identified? Eliminate options that solve the wrong problem or are based on incorrect rules.

This deliberate, four-step process slows you down just enough to avoid common traps and ensures you are answering the question the examiner is actually asking.

Frequently asked questions

How many insurance questions are on the CFP exam? The "Risk Management and Insurance Planning" section accounts for 11% of the 170 questions on the CFP exam. This means you should expect approximately 19 questions dedicated to this topic area. Is the Human Life Value (HLV) calculation on the CFP exam? Yes, both the Human Life Value and the Needs Approach are testable methods for determining life insurance amounts. You should be prepared to calculate HLV, which involves finding the present value of an individual's future earnings dedicated to their family. What is the difference between an HO-3 and HO-5 homeowners policy? The primary difference is coverage for personal property. An HO-3 policy provides "named perils" coverage for personal property (only covered for risks listed in the policy). An HO-5 policy provides "open perils" coverage for personal property (covered for everything except what is specifically excluded), offering broader protection. Are group disability benefits always taxable? No. The taxability depends entirely on who pays the premium. If the employer pays the premium, the benefits are taxable to the employee. If the employee pays the premium with after-tax dollars, the benefits are received tax-free. If the cost is split, the benefits are partially taxable.
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CFP Domain 1: Professional Conduct and Regulation

Under the CFP Board Code of Ethics and Standards of Conduct (Standard A.1: Fiduciary Duty), when is a CFP® professional required to act as a fiduciary?

Official resources and references

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About the Author: Rob Pfleghardt

Rob Pfleghardt is the founder of VoraPrep, a comprehensive exam prep platform for the CPA, CMA, EA, CIA, CISA, and CFP exams. A Virginia Tech graduate in Accounting and Finance, Rob began his career at Price Waterhouse, spending a decade in audit and IT consulting. After holding a CPA license for 37 years (1987–2024) and successfully scaling his own enterprise IT consultancy serving the Department of Defense, Rob launched VoraPrep. He now leverages his deep systems architecture background to build the adaptive training technology and curriculum that helps candidates pass their certification exams efficiently.

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