Domain 7, Security Operations, accounts for 16% of your total CISSP exam score. Most candidates who fail this domain make the same mistake: they see a technical problem and apply a technical solution. But the exam tests your judgment on prioritizing actions to protect business functions during a crisis. It's not about what you can do, but what you must do first.
These free CISSP Security Operations practice questions test your managerial judgment on incident response, disaster recovery, and change control. Designed for the 2026 exam, they force you to choose the best business-focused action, not just the most technical one, mirroring the real CISSP and targeting the #1 reason candidates fail Domain 7.
Key facts
- Official Body
- ISC2 (International Information System Security Certification Consortium)
- Passing Score
- 700 out of 1000 points
- Domain 7 Weighting
- 16% of the exam
- Exam Format
- Computerized Adaptive Testing (CAT)
- Number of Questions
- 125-175 questions
- Exam Time
- 4 hours
What Makes These Security Operations Questions Different?
I’ve written these 11 questions to simulate the real pressure and ambiguity of the CISSP exam. They are aligned directly with the 2026 ISC2 exam outline for Domain 7, covering topics from incident management to personnel safety. Try VoraPrep's free CISSP practice questions for even more scenarios.
The mix includes:
- Foundational questions on core concepts like logging and monitoring.
- Scenario-based questions that force you to choose the best next step in a crisis.
- Trap questions where a technically correct answer is not the managerially correct one.
Each explanation is built to teach you the "why" behind the answer. I'll show you the tempting wrong choice and explain the examiner's logic, so you learn the judgment required to pass. For a full breakdown of the test, see our guide to the exam details and format breakdown.
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CISSP Domain 7 Practice Questions (2026 Exam)
Take your time and read each question carefully. Choose the best possible answer, then review the detailed explanation to understand the underlying principles.
Question 1
A financial services company discovers that a web server has been compromised and is hosting malware. The server processes sensitive customer data. According to the NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle, what is the IMMEDIATE first step the incident response team should take?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of the correct incident response sequence. The official NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2 lifecycle has four phases: Preparation; Detection and Analysis; Containment, Eradication, & Recovery; and Post-Incident Activity.
The correct answer is (B) Disconnect the server from the network. This is a containment action. The immediate priority is to stop the bleeding: prevent the attacker from causing further damage, exfiltrating more data, or moving laterally within the network.
Question 2
A company's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) has identified a critical billing system with a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 4 hours and a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 hour. Which of the following disaster recovery solutions BEST meets these requirements?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: This question requires you to translate business requirements (RTO/RPO) into a specific technical solution.
- RTO (Recovery Time Objective): How quickly must the system be back online? Here, it's 4 hours.
- RPO (Recovery Point Objective): How much data can you afford to lose? Here, it's 1 hour.
The best answer is (D) A high-availability clustered server configuration. A cluster provides automatic failover, often in seconds or minutes, which easily meets the 4-hour RTO. Since the data is actively shared between nodes, the data loss is near-zero, satisfying the 1-hour RPO.
Let's break down why the others are wrong:
- (A) Daily backups fail the RPO test spectacularly. If the last backup was 23 hours ago, you would lose almost a full day of data, far exceeding the 1-hour RPO.
- (B) A cold site fails the RTO test. A cold site is just space and power; it takes days to get equipment, install software, and restore data. A 48-hour activation time is nowhere near the 4-hour RTO.
- (C) Asynchronous replication to a hot site is a strong contender and much better than A or B. However, "asynchronous" implies a slight delay in data replication. While it might meet the 1-hour RPO, a high-availability cluster (D) is a more precise and robust solution for near-zero downtime and data loss, making it the best choice.
Question 3
An administrator needs to apply a critical security patch to a production database server. Which of the following is the MOST important step to perform before applying the patch?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The CISSP exam wants you to think about process and governance first. While all these options are good ideas, the single most important step from a risk management perspective is to follow the established process.
The correct answer is (C) Submit a change request through the formal change control process. Change control is the formal business process designed to prevent unauthorized or untested changes from causing outages. It ensures that all other steps (like testing, backing up, and notifying users) are documented, reviewed, and approved by stakeholders. Skipping this step is a major governance failure.
Thinking like an examiner:
- (D) Testing the patch is critically important, but it's an action that is mandated and documented by the change control process. The process itself comes first.
- (B) Ensuring a backup is also a key prerequisite, and it would be a required part of any sane change control plan.
- (A) Notifying users is a matter of communication, which is also managed through the change request.
The change control process is the umbrella that governs all the other activities. It is the formal starting point for any planned change in a mature organization.
Question 4
During a digital forensics investigation, a first responder arrives at the scene of a compromised workstation that is still running. Which of the following types of evidence should be collected FIRST?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: This question tests your understanding of the "order of volatility" in evidence collection. You must collect evidence from most volatile (likely to disappear when power is lost) to least volatile.
The correct answer is (B) Contents of the CPU registers and cache. This data is incredibly volatile and will be lost instantly if the machine is powered down or even reboots. It represents the most transient state of the system.
- CPU registers, CPU cache
- RAM (Random Access Memory)
- Network state (routing tables, ARP cache, open ports, active connections)
- Running processes
- Data on disk (including temporary files)
- Remote logs (SIEM, syslog server)
- Archived media (backups)
Based on this, (C) Network connections are less volatile than CPU cache and RAM. (A) Data from the hard disk is much less volatile. (D) Archived logs from the SIEM are the least volatile, as they are stored on a separate system.
Question 5
A security audit of a data center reveals that while biometric scanners are in place at the entrance, there are no physical barriers to prevent tailgating. Which type of control is missing?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: This is a classic control-type question. You need to understand the purpose of different security controls.
The correct answer is (C) Preventive. Preventive controls are designed to stop an incident from occurring in the first place. A physical barrier that prevents tailgating, such as a mantrap or a turnstile, actively blocks an unauthorized person from following an authorized one.
The biometric scanner is also a preventive control, but the question asks what is missing to address the specific risk of tailgating. The missing piece is the physical barrier to enforce single-person entry.
| Control Type | Purpose | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Preventive | Stops an incident from occurring. | Firewall, Mantrap, Encryption |
| Detective | Identifies an incident in progress or after it has occurred. | IDS, Motion Detector, Log Review |
| Corrective | Fixes a system or process after an incident. | Restoring from backup, Patching |
| Deterrent | Discourages a potential attacker. | "No Trespassing" sign, Guard Dog |
| Compensating | Mitigates risk when a primary control is not feasible. | WAF rule for an unpatched server |
Question 6
A fire alarm is triggered in a company's primary data center. According to best practices for business continuity and disaster recovery, what is the absolute first priority?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The CISSP exam will always, without exception, prioritize human life and safety above all else. While all other actions are important parts of an emergency plan, they are secondary to ensuring people are safe.
The correct answer is (B) Ensuring the safety of all personnel. This includes evacuating the building, accounting for all employees at muster points, and coordinating with first responders. No system, data, or piece of hardware is more important than a human life.
- (A) Activating the fire suppression system is a critical step to protect assets, but it happens in conjunction with or after the evacuation alarm. Many automated systems are designed to trigger after a delay to allow for evacuation.
- (C) Failing over critical systems is part of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), but it only begins once the immediate threat to life is addressed and the extent of the damage is assessed.
- (D) Notifying senior management is part of the incident communication plan, but the immediate, on-the-ground priority is ensuring everyone gets out of the building safely.
Question 7
An organization's security policy requires that all privileged user activity on critical servers be logged and reviewed. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the integrity of these logs?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The question hinges on ensuring log "integrity." How do you protect logs from being tampered with, especially by a privileged user who might want to cover their tracks?
The most effective method is (C) Use a centralized log server that servers can only write to. By sending logs immediately to a separate, hardened server, you remove them from the control of anyone on the local machine. If an attacker (or malicious insider) compromises a server, they cannot edit or delete the logs that have already been sent to the remote system. The "write-only" permission is crucial; even administrators of the source server cannot log into the central log server and alter the records.
Why the others are less effective:
- (A) Storing logs locally is the worst option. A compromised root or admin account has full control to modify or delete local log files.
- (B) Configuring logs as append-only is a good step but can be bypassed by a sufficiently privileged user who can change file system attributes.
- (D) Daily backups are good for availability but not integrity. An attacker could modify the logs, and the modified version would then be backed up. It doesn't prevent tampering, it just archives the tampered data.
Question 8
What is the primary purpose of a "sandbox" in the context of security operations?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is a definition-based question, common in the Security Operations domain. A sandbox is a core tool for malware analysis.
The correct answer is (B) To analyze potentially malicious code in an isolated environment. A sandbox is a secure, contained virtual environment where security analysts can safely execute suspicious files or URLs. The sandbox monitors the code's behavior (e.g., what files it tries to create, what network connections it opens) without any risk to the production network or the analyst's workstation.
While you could use isolated environments for other purposes like training (A) or DR testing (C), the specific term "sandbox" in a security operations context almost always refers to malware analysis. A quarantine network (D) is for containing already-compromised systems, not for proactively analyzing unknown code.
Question 9
A security team is conducting a vulnerability scan of their network. The scan report shows a critical vulnerability on a web server that has a publicly available patch. However, the system administrator states that applying the patch will break the custom web application running on the server. What is the BEST course of action?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: This is a classic business vs. security scenario. The CISSP exam will always favor a solution that allows the business to continue operating while managing risk.
The best course of action is (C) Implement a compensating control. A compensating control is a measure put in place to reduce the risk of a vulnerability that cannot be directly fixed. In this case, a WAF rule could be configured to block any attempts to exploit this specific vulnerability at the network level, protecting the unpatched server behind it. This mitigates the immediate risk while allowing the business application to remain online.
Let's look at the other choices:
- (A) Apply the patch immediately ignores the business requirement. A security professional who breaks a critical application without a plan is not doing their job correctly.
- (B) Accepting the risk might be the ultimate outcome, but it's not the first step. You must first attempt to mitigate the risk. Risk acceptance is a last resort and requires formal sign-off from management.
- (D) Taking the server offline is an extreme measure that would likely have a significant business impact. It should only be considered if the risk is immense and cannot be mitigated in any other way.
Question 10
During an investigation, you must seize a company-owned laptop from an employee suspected of data theft. The laptop is powered on and unlocked on the employee's desk. What should you do first?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: This scenario combines evidence handling with incident response. The goal is to preserve evidence while preventing further damage.
The correct first step is (C) Disconnect the laptop from the network. This is a containment action. If the employee is actively exfiltrating data or a malicious program is running, this stops it immediately. It isolates the machine and prevents remote wiping or further communication.
After containment, the next steps involve evidence preservation.
- (A) Powering the laptop down is incorrect. This would destroy all volatile memory (RAM), which could contain crucial evidence like running processes, encryption keys, or chat logs.
- (B) Photographing the screen is a good step, but disconnecting the power cord is part of an improper shutdown procedure. The goal is to preserve volatile memory. If a live memory acquisition is not possible, the next best thing is to cut power to "freeze" the state of RAM for a cold boot forensic tool. For a laptop, this means removing both the AC adapter and the battery.
- (D) Asking the employee for their password could alert them and give them a chance to delete data. It also introduces legal complexities. You should not interact with the suspect in this way during evidence seizure.
Question 11
Which of the following describes the difference between a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) and a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: This question tests your understanding of the relationship between these two critical planning documents. It's a common point of confusion.
The correct answer is (C) The DRP is a component of the BCP that focuses on restoring IT infrastructure. This is the most accurate description. The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is the overarching strategic plan that focuses on keeping the entire business operational during a disruption. It addresses people, processes, and facilities. The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is a subset of the BCP, and it provides the detailed, tactical procedures for recovering specific IT systems and data.
Think of it this way:
- BCP: How do we keep the call center taking orders if our main office is flooded? (Maybe we move people to a different site and use paper forms).
- DRP: How do we restore the customer database and phone system at that alternate site?
Calculate Your CISSP Score & Study Hours by Domain
Adjust your practice scores across official CISSP blueprint domains to predict your pass probability and generate a domain-weighted study schedule.
What Does Your Score Mean?
Count up your correct answers. The goal of these questions is to expose gaps in your thinking process, not just your knowledge.
- 9-11 Correct: Excellent. You have a strong grasp of the managerial mindset required for Security Operations. You are correctly prioritizing business needs and following established processes like incident response and change control. Your task now is to maintain this level of judgment across all sub-domains.
- 6-8 Correct: You're on the right track but likely getting caught by tempting "technical" answers. You probably know the concepts (like patching and backups) but are not consistently applying them in the correct order or context. Your focus should be on internalizing frameworks like the order of volatility and the NIST IR lifecycle.
- 0-5 Correct: This indicates a fundamental gap. You may be thinking like a technician, not a security manager. The biggest myth to overcome is that the "fastest" or "most technical" solution is the best one. It rarely is on the CISSP. Your next step is to slow down and, for every question, ask "What is the process here, and what action best minimizes business risk?"
If your score was lower than you hoped, that's valuable data. It tells you exactly where to focus. If you struggled, you're not alone. Our CISSP Exam Retake Strategy guide can help you build a targeted plan for your next attempt.
How to Master CISSP Domain 7 with VoraPrep
A handful of questions is a good start, but passing the CISSP requires consistent practice across all eight domains. Memorizing facts isn't enough; you need to build the judgment that only comes from working through hundreds of realistic scenarios.
This is where VoraPrep's complete 6-pillar course comes in. Instead of paying thousands for passive video lectures, you get a fully interactive learning system.
- 2,200+ Adaptive Practice Questions: Our adaptive engine learns your weak spots within Security Operations (and all other domains) and serves you more questions in those areas until you master them. Each question has a detailed rationale explaining the "why" behind the right and wrong answers.
- Personalized Study Plan: Tell us your exam date, and we'll build you a daily study calendar covering everything from our textbook-grade lessons to spaced-repetition flashcards.
- Vory, Your 24/7 Personal Tutor: Stuck on a concept like RTO vs. RPO? Ask Vory directly within the platform. Vory provides Socratic, step-by-step coaching to help you understand the concept, not just get the answer.
VoraPrep is a complete, standalone course designed for busy professionals who need to study efficiently. Explore our full CISSP course to see how our interactive lessons and 1:1 exam simulators can get you pass-ready.